[smc]

A new member of this site recently posted that he would like to be "sodomized" under particular circumstances. It started me thinking about this word "sodomy," its origins, and why I would like to propose that we not use it.

The use of the word "sodomy" to describe anal sex (or its wider use to describe any non-vaginal sex) derives from the story of Sodom in The Bible (Genesis 18 and 19). Without going into the story's detail (it's readily available online or at your local bookstore or house of worship), the word derives from the tale of the cit of Sodom being destroyed for its wickedness, much (if not most or all) of which was specific to alleged sexual "deviation."

Hence, when we use the words "sodomy" or "sodomize" to describe anal sex, we are legitimizing the association with deviation. This association has been used over time, and to this day, to crimininalize certain behaviors. In fact, in the United States, it was only a mere ten years ago that the U.S. Supreme Court, in the case Lawrence v. Texas, struck down the sodomy law in Texas and, by extension, invalidated the then-existing sodomy laws in the thirteen remaining states that had them on the books, making "sodomy" legal in every U.S. state and territory.

So, friends, let's not use this word, okay? Instead of writing "I would love to get sodomized by _______," it works just as well (in fact, better) to write "I would love to get fucked in the ass by _______" or "I would love to have _______ pound my hole with her big cock" or ...

Excuse me, now I'm getting aroused.